Our client entered into an oral contract. The plaintiff would contribute seed money to get the business going. Our client would enter into a lease, contribute money and start the business (do the work). Plaintiff would sell the final product for a higher-than-normal commission. Or is that right? The plaintiff alleges he would advance the money but then have it repaid. He then alleges that he would get 50% of profits. Of course there are no written agreements. We are starting our investigation to see what we can make of this mess. Needless to say, get it in writing!
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